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Author: Pete Rambo
Details in 'About' page @ natsab.wordpress.com Basically, husband of one, father of four. Pastor x 11 years, former business and military background. Micro-farmer. Messianic believer in Yeshua haMashiach! View all posts by Pete Rambo
Sounds like in the OT if you were a stranger, and wanted to participate in the Passover, then you were supposed to be circumcised in the flesh. However in Acts 15 we read that circumcision of non-Jews was not a requirement for salvation.
So, for today, if someone is not a biological Jew, not circumcised, trying to follow God, and celebrate the “forever feasts”, it seems to me that scripture does not teach that such a person needs to be circumcised in order to participate in those feasts.
Curious to know if you come to the same conclusion, or if you could shed additional light on any different conclusion you come to.
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Shalom, Benjamin.
As I understand Acts 15, I think there are several issues. First, ‘circumcision’ in some contexts is a phrase meaning proselyte conversion. This was not simply a foreskin trim, it was acceptance of rabbinic (technically Pharisaic, at that point) oversight and taking on the oral traditions. These were the ‘party of the circumcision.’
Acts 15:20-21 gave the minimum standards for entering fellowship with the expectation that the Torah would be learned.
Once one learns the Torah, they find in Exodus 12:40ff that all males who keep the Passover must be circumcised in the flesh. That is an everlasting, unchanging standard.
Paul, elsewhere says, ‘neither circumcision or uncircumcision matters, what matters is keeping the commandments ‘… there, if I recall, he is saying, oral tradition or no oral tradition, what matters is keeping the written Torah. And, if we are obedient to Ex. 12, then circumcision is a necessary prerequisite.
Shalom.
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